the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin for treatment of a pulmonary embolism the nurse should ensure that which medicat
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

2. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

5. The healthcare provider is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who has been prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The healthcare provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet. Oatmeal is a heart-healthy option that is low in cholesterol and saturated fats. Fresh fruits are also a good source of essential nutrients and fiber. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Whole milk, fried chicken, bacon, and eggs are high in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental to individuals with coronary artery disease.

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