ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?
- A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
- B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
- C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
- D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
3. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
- B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
- C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
- D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.
4. Consuming 30 g of which nutrient would provide the highest number of kcalories?
- A. Carbohydrates
- B. Fat
- C. Protein
- D. Micronutrients
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Fat.' Fat provides 9 kcalories per gram, which is more than carbohydrates and proteins that provide 4 kcalories per gram each. Therefore, consuming 30 g of fat would yield a higher number of kcalories compared to the same amount of carbohydrates or proteins. Micronutrients do not significantly contribute to kcalories, making them an incorrect choice in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99