the nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.

2. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching on foot care. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correctly trimming toenails straight across is crucial in preventing ingrown toenails and potential infections in individuals with diabetes. Ingrown toenails can lead to complications, so it is essential for diabetic clients to practice proper nail care to avoid these issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Walking barefoot can increase the risk of foot injuries, soaking feet in hot water can cause burns or skin damage, and using a heating pad can lead to burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in the feet, which is common in diabetes.

3. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.

4. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.

5. What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with a history of hypertension being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic is to monitor weight daily. This is important because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid imbalances, and monitoring weight daily can help detect significant changes early. Choice A, avoiding foods high in potassium, is not directly related to thiazide diuretics. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, may vary depending on the specific medication but is not a universal instruction. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not appropriate as adequate hydration is important to prevent complications like hypokalemia.

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