ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.
2. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
- B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
- C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
- D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.
3. What action should the nurse take to prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Secure the tracheostomy ties firmly.
- B. Change the tracheostomy tube daily.
- C. Use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff.
- D. Clean the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff. This method helps avoid excessive pressure on the tracheal tissue, thereby reducing the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tracheostomy ties too tightly can cause pressure and tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not necessary unless there is a specific clinical indication. Choice D is incorrect as cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide can irritate the skin and mucous membranes, potentially leading to damage.
4. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
- B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
- D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.
5. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.
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