ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
- A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
- B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
- C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
- D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.
2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fruity breath odor.
- B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
- C. Deep, rapid respirations.
- D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?
- A. Strict control of blood glucose levels.
- B. Regular dressing changes with sterile technique.
- C. Application of antibiotic ointment.
- D. Hydrotherapy treatment daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.
4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?
- A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
- B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
- C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.
5. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
- D. Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.
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