Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

2. A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?

• A. Smoking history
• B. Recent exposure to allergens
• C. History of recent insect bites
• D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.

3. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

4. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.

5. The healthcare provider is reinforcing instructions to a client with heart failure who is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Processed cheese
• D. Pickled vegetables

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are a suitable choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium and provide essential nutrients. In contrast, canned soup, processed cheese, and pickled vegetables tend to be high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with heart failure and on a low-sodium diet. Fresh vegetables are also rich in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, making them a healthier option compared to the other choices provided.

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