ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST-segment depression
- C. Prolonged P-R interval
- D. Widening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: B
Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.
3. A client with chronic heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Limit foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- C. Report any muscle cramps or weakness to your healthcare provider.
- D. Expect to urinate more frequently while on this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce to the client regarding furosemide (Lasix) is to report any muscle cramps or weakness to the healthcare provider. Muscle cramps or weakness may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly can help in preventing complications related to electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is not directly related to furosemide use; in fact, foods high in potassium may be beneficial for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Choice D is a common expected side effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not as crucial to report as potential signs of electrolyte imbalances.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.
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