Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and rest.
• D. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, it may indicate a myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack. In this situation, the nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention. Delay in seeking medical attention for chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin can be life-threatening, as it might be a sign of a more serious cardiac event. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin (Choice A) without further evaluation can be risky, as the client's condition may require a different intervention. Having the client lie down and rest (Choice C) or encouraging deep breaths (Choice D) are not appropriate actions in this scenario where a more serious cardiac event needs to be ruled out.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse reviews the client's record for which sign or symptom that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems?

• A. Anterior chest pain
• B. Pericardial friction rub
• C. Weakness and irritability
• D. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pericardial friction rub is a distinctive sign of pericarditis, characterized by a scraping or grating sound heard on auscultation, which helps differentiate pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary conditions. While anterior chest pain may be present in various cardiopulmonary issues, it is not specific to pericarditis. Weakness and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in many conditions. Chest pain worsening with inspiration is more indicative of pleuritic conditions such as pleurisy or pneumonia, rather than pericarditis.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, particularly following the initial dose or dosage escalation. This effect is due to the medication's mechanism of action in dilating blood vessels, which can result in lowered blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting in clients taking enalapril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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