Nursing Elites

1. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking metformin (Glucophage) is with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves the medication's absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to more adverse effects, so it is essential to take it with food. Option A ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. Option C ('Take the medication on an empty stomach') is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal issues. Option D ('Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar') is incorrect because metformin is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed for high blood sugar.

2. A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
• C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
• D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.

3. A client reports recent exposure to hepatitis A. What is a common mode of transmission for this virus?

• A. Blood transfusion
• B. Fecal-oral route
• C. Needle sharing
• D. Sexual contact

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often via ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is why proper hygiene, sanitation, and vaccination are essential in preventing the spread of hepatitis A.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

5. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
• B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
• C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

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