the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed metformin glucophage for type 2 diabetes which instruction should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking metformin (Glucophage) is with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves the medication's absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to more adverse effects, so it is essential to take it with food. Option A ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. Option C ('Take the medication on an empty stomach') is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal issues. Option D ('Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar') is incorrect because metformin is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed for high blood sugar.

2. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.

4. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

5. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

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