a client is on a mechanical ventilator which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride tubarine is effective
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Adult Medical Surgical

1. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

2. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.

3. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

4. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.

Similar Questions

A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?
A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses