a nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness the nurse should recommend
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.

2. A client has been prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to prevent toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Serum phenytoin levels should be regularly monitored to prevent toxicity because the therapeutic range is narrow. Monitoring blood pressure (choice A), complete blood count (choice B), and liver function tests (choice D) are not directly related to preventing phenytoin toxicity.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

5. When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.

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