ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
- A. Bloody diarrhea
- B. Ptosis of the eyelids
- C. Descending paralysis
- D. Rash in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.â€
- B. “Momentary flushing may occur at the beginning of the procedure.â€
- C. “You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.â€
- D. “You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.
4. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Significant abdominal distention
- B. Large bowel movements
- C. High-pitched bowel sounds
- D. Copious vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.
5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform fundal massage
- B. Administer oxytocin IV
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
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