Nursing Elites

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Acrocyanosis
• B. Respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute
• C. Grunting with nasal flaring
• D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grunting with nasal flaring is a concerning sign of respiratory distress in a newborn that can indicate inadequate oxygenation. This finding requires immediate intervention to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stabilized and to prevent further complications. Prompt assessment and appropriate intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent respiratory compromise and potential deterioration. Acrocyanosis, which is bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and usually resolves on its own. A respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 140 beats per minute are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not indicate immediate intervention is needed.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn for signs of hypoglycemia. Which finding is consistent with hypoglycemia?

• A. Jitteriness
• B. Flushed skin
• C. Quiet alert state
• D. Strong cry

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jitteriness is a common clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. It is important to recognize this sign promptly as it can indicate a potentially serious condition that requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

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