Nursing Elites

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. Which position is MOST appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. Supine with hips elevated
• C. Left lateral recumbent
• D. Left side with legs elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is supine with hips elevated. This position helps reduce pressure on the cord, preventing further complications and ensuring optimal blood flow to the fetus.

3. A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:

• A. a normal pregnancy.
• B. a ruptured ovarian cyst.
• C. an ectopic pregnancy.
• D. a spontaneous abortion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.

4. Sometimes, people with congestive heart failure develop arrhythmias of the heart. These irregular rhythms can be conducive to developing a blood clot. Physicians frequently treat people with 'blood thinning' medicines that require regulation of the density of the blood. Which of these is the name for a blood-thinner?

• A. Erythromycin
• B. Tetracycline
• C. Warfarin
• D. Amoxicillin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin is a medication commonly used as a blood thinner to prevent blood clot formation. It works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation and helping in the management of conditions like congestive heart failure and arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics and do not have blood-thinning properties like Warfarin.

5. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The child is wheezing and has nasal flaring and retractions. His oxygen saturation is 92%. You should:

• A. place the child in a supine position.
• B. administer high-flow oxygen.
• C. begin chest compressions.
• D. administer low-flow oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a scenario where a child presents with respiratory distress, wheezing, nasal flaring, retractions, and an oxygen saturation of 92%, the appropriate intervention is to administer high-flow oxygen. This helps to improve oxygenation and alleviate the respiratory distress the child is experiencing. Placing the child in a supine position can worsen their condition by affecting their ability to breathe effectively. Chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the child is not in cardiac arrest. Administering low-flow oxygen may not provide adequate oxygenation for a child in respiratory distress with a saturation of 92%. Therefore, the priority is to administer high-flow oxygen to improve oxygen levels and support the child's breathing.

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