the non pharmacological management of measles include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Pediatric Medications Test

1. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

2. Adoley has been presented at the OPD with the following clinical manifestations: crying easily, short attention span, inability to sit still, fatigue but unable to sleep at night, excessive sweating, increased heart rate, and blood pressure. Which of the following will be the appropriate diagnosis for Adoley?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described in the case, such as excessive sweating, increased heart rate, and inability to sleep, are indicative of hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, leading to symptoms like increased heart rate, sweating, and difficulty sleeping, which align with Adoley's clinical manifestations. Therefore, the appropriate diagnosis for Adoley would be hyperthyroidism.

3. Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.

4. The healthcare provider assesses a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, which is abnormal postpartum. This finding could suggest hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent serious consequences.

5. What intervention should the nurse encourage for a postpartum client complaining of perineal pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for perineal pain in a postpartum client is the use of ice packs for the first 24 hours. Ice packs help reduce swelling and discomfort in the perineal area, especially during the initial post-delivery period. Applying heat packs can exacerbate swelling and discomfort. Avoiding peri-bottles may lead to poor perineal hygiene. Using tampons is contraindicated postpartum as it increases the risk of infection.

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