Nursing Elites

1. What is the main cause or association of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Mostly associated with autoantibodies
• B. Mostly associated with childhood cancer
• C. Commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome
• D. Commonly associated with overeating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome. These conditions are major contributing factors to the development of Type 2 diabetes due to insulin resistance and other metabolic abnormalities linked to excess body weight and unhealthy lifestyle habits.

2. Warning signs that indicate dehydration include all EXCEPT:

• A. Poor skin turgor
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Eager to drink

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased urine output is not a warning sign of dehydration; it typically decreases with dehydration. Dehydration often presents with poor skin turgor, tachycardia, and an increased sensation of thirst (eager to drink) as the body tries to compensate for fluid loss. Choices A, C, and D are all correct warning signs of dehydration. Poor skin turgor is a result of decreased skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Tachycardia, an elevated heart rate, can be a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in dehydration. Feeling eager to drink is a common symptom of dehydration as the body attempts to restore fluid balance.

3. Which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, making it preventable?

• A. Type 1
• B. Type 2
• C. Type 1 and 2
• D. Gestational diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, such as lifestyle choices and genetics, making it preventable. Type 1 diabetes, on the other hand, is an autoimmune condition that is not preventable. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not entirely preventable. Type 1 and 2 diabetes are distinct conditions, with Type 2 being the type associated with preventable risk factors.

4. Management for a woman presenting with a prolapsed umbilical cord includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

• A. lifting the baby's head off the umbilical cord.
• B. placing the mother in a position that elevates her hips.
• C. ensuring that the cord stays moist during transport.
• D. relieving pressure off the cord by gently pulling on it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of prolapsed umbilical cord, it is crucial to manage the situation promptly. The correct steps include lifting the baby's head off the umbilical cord to reduce pressure, placing the mother in a position that elevates her hips to relieve pressure on the cord, and ensuring that the cord stays moist. Pulling on the cord is not recommended as it can further compromise fetal circulation and should be avoided. Therefore, relieving pressure off the cord by gently pulling on it is not a recommended management approach in cases of prolapsed umbilical cord.

5. The student nurse has performed a gestational age assessment of an infant and finds the infant to be at 32 weeks. On which set of characteristics is the nurse basing this assessment?

• A. Lanugo mostly gone, little vernix remaining on the body
• B. Prominent clitoris, enlarging labia minora, patent anus
• C. Full areola, 5 to 10 mm nipple bud, pinkish-brown areola
• D. Skin opaque, cracking at wrists and ankles, no visible vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. At 30 to 32 weeks' gestation, the clitoris is prominent, and the labia minora are enlarging. The labia majora are small and widely separated. As gestational age increases, the labia majora increase in size. At 36 to 40 weeks, they almost cover the clitoris. At 40 weeks and beyond, the labia majora cover the labia minora and clitoris. Choices A, C, and D do not align with the characteristic features seen at 32 weeks of gestation, making them incorrect.

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