Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST suggest acute respiratory distress in a 2-month-old infant?

• A. Heart rate of 130 beats/min
• B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
• C. Abdominal breathing
• D. Grunting respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grunting respirations are a key clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. Grunting is a protective mechanism where the infant exhales against a partially closed glottis to increase functional residual capacity and oxygenation. This is often seen in conditions such as respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, or other causes of respiratory compromise in infants. Monitoring respiratory patterns like grunting is crucial for early recognition and intervention in infants with respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to acute respiratory distress in infants. While an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate can be present in respiratory distress, grunting respirations are a more direct indicator of significant respiratory compromise in infants.

2. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

• A. Very severe disease
• B. Pneumonia
• C. No pneumonia
• D. Local infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

3. Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?

• A. Dilate the bronchioles
• B. Reduce secondary infections
• C. Decrease postnasal drip
• D. Reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.

4. In the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses, one of the things to look for is danger signs. Which of the following will you consider a danger sign in a child?

• A. The child vomits everything
• B. A child with diarrhea
• C. A child with headache
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The child vomits everything.' Vomiting everything is considered a danger sign in a child as it can lead to dehydration and other serious complications. Recognizing this sign early can help in timely intervention and management of the child's condition. Choices B and C are incorrect as diarrhea and headache, while concerning, are not specific danger signs highlighted in the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses.

5. Atta, who weighs 20kg, has been prescribed amoxicillin 500 mg b.i.d. The drug information indicates a daily dose of amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the safest dose in milligrams for this child?

• A. 1000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. 500 mg
• D. 250 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the safest dose of amoxicillin for Atta, we multiply the weight (20kg) by the daily dose (50 mg/kg/day) which equals 1000 mg/day. Since the dose is to be given in two divided doses, the safest dose for each administration would be 500 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 mg, as it aligns with the prescribed dose for this child based on weight and dosing guidelines. Choice B, 750 mg, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated daily dose. Choice C, 500 mg, is incorrect as it represents the safest dose for each administration, not the total daily dose. Choice D, 250 mg, is incorrect as it is below the calculated daily dose required for the child.

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