Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

3. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

4. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

5. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Expect a sweet taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal discomfort, and increasing fluid intake can help alleviate this side effect. Instructing the client to take the medication with food (Choice A) rather than on an empty stomach is recommended to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not directly related to metformin but rather to low blood sugar. Expecting a sweet taste in the mouth (Choice D) is not a common side effect of metformin.

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