Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

2. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

4. The healthcare provider is setting up the bedside unit for a client being admitted to the nursing unit from the emergency department with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The provider should place the highest priority on making sure that which is available at the bedside?

• A. Bedside commode
• B. Rolling shower chair
• C. Oxygen tubing and flowmeter
• D. Twelve-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) machine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD), ensuring the availability of oxygen and a flowmeter at the bedside is crucial. Oxygen is essential for adequate oxygenation, which helps prevent myocardial ischemia, a common complication in CAD. The other options, such as a bedside commode and rolling shower chair, are important for patient comfort and mobility but are not as critical as ensuring proper oxygen supply in a client with CAD. While having an ECG machine available is important for ongoing monitoring, ensuring oxygen availability takes precedence in this scenario.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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