a nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the pr
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

3. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.

4. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for a dry cough. Captopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. If a dry cough develops, it should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly, as it may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as hypokalemia is not a common side effect of captopril. Choice C is incorrect as captopril is typically taken during the day and not specifically at bedtime.

5. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

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