Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.

3. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking atenolol. Atenolol can lead to bradycardia, a slow heart rate. By monitoring heart rate daily, the client can promptly identify any significant changes and seek medical attention if necessary. This proactive approach enables early detection of potential adverse effects of atenolol, contributing to the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking atenolol at bedtime, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of atenolol.

4. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent the formation of kidney stones. Allopurinol can increase the levels of uric acid in the body, which can lead to kidney stone formation. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help flush out excess uric acid and prevent the development of kidney stones. It is important to drink plenty of water throughout the day to maintain adequate hydration and reduce the risk of kidney stone formation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking allopurinol with food or in the morning does not specifically relate to preventing kidney stone formation. Avoiding dairy products is not a standard recommendation when taking allopurinol.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions