ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.
2. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
4. A client reports chest pain that is unrelieved by three doses of nitroglycerin taken 5 minutes apart. What is the nurse's next best action?
- A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's chest pain persists despite three doses of nitroglycerin, indicating a potentially severe cardiac issue like a myocardial infarction. The priority for the nurse in this situation is to involve the healthcare provider promptly. Calling the healthcare provider immediately is essential to ensure timely evaluation and appropriate intervention for the client. Administering more nitroglycerin without further assessment or instructions may not be safe and could delay necessary treatments. Providing oxygen or changing the client's position may offer some comfort but does not address the underlying potentially life-threatening condition, making these options less appropriate as the immediate next best action.
5. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.
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