ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Urine output
- B. Pupil reaction
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.
2. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?
- A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.
4. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Blood glucose
- B. Serum sodium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, it can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring the serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly impacted by furosemide. Serum sodium (Choice B) may be affected, but monitoring potassium is more critical due to the risk of arrhythmias. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice D) is important for assessing kidney function but is not the most crucial value to monitor in a client taking furosemide.
5. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
- C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.
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