Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
• B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate daily is essential to detect any abnormal changes promptly, allowing for timely medical intervention if necessary. Choice A is incorrect because atenolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as atenolol does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol is usually taken in the morning to help manage blood pressure throughout the day.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should teach the client about which potential side effect?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like simvastatin and can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, it's important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect and to promptly report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with simvastatin use and are less concerning compared to the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

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