Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
• B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.

2. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent the formation of kidney stones. Allopurinol can increase the levels of uric acid in the body, which can lead to kidney stone formation. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help flush out excess uric acid and prevent the development of kidney stones. It is important to drink plenty of water throughout the day to maintain adequate hydration and reduce the risk of kidney stone formation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking allopurinol with food or in the morning does not specifically relate to preventing kidney stone formation. Avoiding dairy products is not a standard recommendation when taking allopurinol.

3. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the evening.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin is to take the medication in the evening. Atorvastatin is more effective when taken at night because cholesterol synthesis is higher during this time. This timing helps optimize the drug's cholesterol-lowering effects and enhances its overall efficacy in managing lipid levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking atorvastatin with food can decrease its absorption, grapefruit juice can interact with atorvastatin leading to increased side effects, and there is no specific need to avoid dairy products while on atorvastatin unless instructed otherwise by the healthcare provider.

4. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon is being taught by the nurse about preventing episodes. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Wear gloves in cold weather.
• B. Avoid caffeine and chocolate.
• C. Increase intake of vitamin C.
• D. Use a heating pad for warmth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear gloves in cold weather.' Wearing gloves in cold weather is essential for preventing vasoconstriction and subsequent episodes of Raynaud's phenomenon. Cold temperatures can trigger vasospasms in individuals with Raynaud's, and wearing gloves helps maintain warmth and prevent the constriction of blood vessels in the extremities, reducing the likelihood of an episode. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while avoiding caffeine and chocolate, increasing vitamin C intake, and using a heating pad for warmth can be beneficial for overall health, they are not specifically targeted at preventing Raynaud's phenomenon episodes triggered by cold weather.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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