ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Keep the client's room warm.
- C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
- D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.
2. When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?
- A. Instruct about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
- B. Provide detailed information about dietary glucose control.
- C. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
- D. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when time is limited is to focus on essential teaching. In this scenario, the patient should be educated on how to self-monitor glucose levels and administer medications to control glucose levels. This empowers the patient with immediate skills for managing their condition. Instructing about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease (choice A) is important but not as urgent as teaching self-monitoring and medication administration. Providing detailed information about dietary glucose control (choice B) can be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring the patient can monitor and manage their glucose levels. Teaching about the effects of exercise (choice D) is relevant but not as critical as immediate self-monitoring and medication administration education.
3. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.
4. A client is being educated about type 2 diabetes. The educator can confirm that the client understands the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes when the client states what?
- A. I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes.
- B. I will take my oral antidiabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high.
- C. I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian.
- D. I will make sure I call the diabetes educator when I have questions about my insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary treatment approach for managing type 2 diabetes includes following a weight loss plan. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity and glycemic control in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Making dietary changes and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial components of managing this condition.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.
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