ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?
- A. I must record any symptoms occurring with my activity.
- B. I am not looking forward to staying in bed for 24 hours.
- C. I really am dreading the frequent blood drawing.
- D. I know that I shouldn't get close to my microwave oven.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording symptoms that occur with activity is crucial when wearing a Holter monitor. This information helps in correlating symptoms with cardiac events, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of the client's condition. The client's understanding of this aspect demonstrates comprehension of the procedure and its purpose.
2. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.
3. An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to schedule a digital rectal exam is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation. This exam can help evaluate for potential prostate enlargement or other issues contributing to the urinary symptoms described by the client. It is important to assess the prostate gland for any abnormalities that may be causing the urinary issues reported by the client.
4. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
- B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
- D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.
5. After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?
- A. Resumption of activities of daily living
- B. Pain control
- C. Promotion of adequate nutrition
- D. Strategies for promoting adequate nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is promoting adequate nutrition. Following rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture, the client may have limitations in jaw movement, which can affect their ability to eat properly. Prioritizing education on promoting adequate nutrition will help ensure the client's nutritional needs are met during the recovery period.
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