Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?

• A. I must record any symptoms occurring with my activity.
• B. I am not looking forward to staying in bed for 24 hours.
• C. I really am dreading the frequent blood drawing.
• D. I know that I shouldn't get close to my microwave oven.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording symptoms that occur with activity is crucial when wearing a Holter monitor. This information helps in correlating symptoms with cardiac events, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of the client's condition. The client's understanding of this aspect demonstrates comprehension of the procedure and its purpose.

2. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

• A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
• C. Folic acid
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
• B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
• C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
• D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.

4. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

5. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

• A. Rapid-acting
• B. Intermediate-acting
• C. Long-acting
• D. Short-acting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

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