which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the clients asthma medication therapy
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator such as albuterol as the first step is crucial to open the airways, allowing better penetration of subsequent inhaled medications and enhancing their overall efficacy in managing asthma symptoms.

2. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.

3. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of dairy products, limiting citrus fruits, or avoiding high-sodium foods are not directly related to the mechanism of action of warfarin or its dietary considerations.

4. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

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