Nursing Elites

1. What action should the nurse take for a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibiting rapid, deep respirations?

• A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
• C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
• D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations is to administer a normal saline bolus and insulin. The rapid, deep respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis, which requires correction with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia and insulin to facilitate glucose re-entry into cells. Oxygen therapy is not necessary since the increased respiratory rate is compensatory and not due to hypoxemia. Encouraging relaxation techniques or administering lorazepam are inappropriate as they can worsen the acidosis by suppressing the compensatory respiratory effort.

2. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
• B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
• C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
• D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

4. A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?

• A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
• B. IV administration of albumin
• C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
• D. IV administration of octreotide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for variceal bleeding is IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide helps control bleeding from varices by reducing portal blood flow and pressure, which is crucial in managing this emergency situation.

5. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

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