Nursing Elites

1. What action should the nurse take for a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibiting rapid, deep respirations?

• A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
• C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
• D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations is to administer a normal saline bolus and insulin. The rapid, deep respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis, which requires correction with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia and insulin to facilitate glucose re-entry into cells. Oxygen therapy is not necessary since the increased respiratory rate is compensatory and not due to hypoxemia. Encouraging relaxation techniques or administering lorazepam are inappropriate as they can worsen the acidosis by suppressing the compensatory respiratory effort.

2. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before bedtime.
• B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Thickened and hardened skin.
• B. Painless ulcers on the fingertips.
• C. Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers.
• D. Red, scaly patches on the hands.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.

5. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver toxicity. Valproic acid is known to potentially cause liver toxicity. Monitoring liver function tests regularly in patients taking valproic acid is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early and prevent serious complications.

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