a client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink frothy sputum which action should the nurse t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

2. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. Clients with myasthenia gravis often experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, which can lead to diminished cough effort. This weakness can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at a high risk. Pain when coughing (choice A) is not directly related to the etiology of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. While thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) can contribute to airway clearance issues, the primary concern in myasthenia gravis is the muscle weakness affecting cough effort.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.

4. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.

5. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.

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