how should a nurse assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of injury for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm system is crucial in minimizing the risk of injury for a client with dementia. This intervention helps alert staff when the client is attempting to leave the bed, reducing the chances of falls. Raising all four side rails while the client is in bed (Choice B) can lead to restraint-related issues and is not recommended unless necessary for safety reasons. Applying a soft wrist restraint (Choice C) is generally not the first choice in managing clients with dementia due to the risk of complications and loss of mobility. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice D) may not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia and may even increase the risk of falls due to poor visibility.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a newly applied cast to the right lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a newly applied cast, the nurse should expect a capillary refill of approximately 2 seconds, as this indicates adequate circulation. A capillary refill longer than 3 seconds suggests impaired circulation, which is abnormal. Therefore, a capillary refill of 5 seconds is the finding the nurse should expect. Pitting edema and shortness of breath are not typically directly related to a newly applied cast and should not be expected findings in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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