Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent infection?

• A. Encourage the client to eat high-protein foods
• B. Encourage the client to drink 2 liters of fluid daily
• C. Instruct the client to use a soft toothbrush
• D. Instruct the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a soft toothbrush. Using a soft toothbrush helps prevent bleeding in clients receiving chemotherapy, who are at risk for mucositis. Encouraging the client to eat high-protein foods (Choice A) is important for overall health but not directly related to preventing infection. Encouraging the client to drink 2 liters of fluid daily (Choice B) is essential for hydration but does not specifically prevent infection. Instructing the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol (Choice D) is contraindicated as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can cause irritation and dryness in the oral mucosa, increasing the risk of infection.

2. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client?

• A. Insert the suction catheter while the client is swallowing
• B. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
• C. Place the catheter in a clean, dry location for later use
• D. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique when performing nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps reduce trauma to the mucosa by preventing prolonged suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the suction catheter while the client is swallowing may increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as placing the catheter in a clean, dry location for later use is not a safe practice as it can lead to contamination. Choice D is incorrect since it does not address the proper technique involved in nasotracheal suctioning.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

4. How do you assess for dehydration in a pediatric patient?

• A. Check for dry mouth and decreased urine output
• B. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
• C. Assess for lethargy and irritability
• D. Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When assessing for dehydration in a pediatric patient, checking for dry mouth and decreased urine output are crucial indicators. Dry mouth indicates reduced fluid intake or dehydration, while decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion secondary to dehydration. Skin turgor and capillary refill are more indicative of perfusion status rather than dehydration specifically. Lethargy and irritability can be present in dehydrated patients but are more general signs of illness. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate are important in assessing dehydration severity but are not the initial signs used for assessment.

5. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
• B. Absent bowel sounds.
• C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.

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