ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has undergone a bronchoscopy, and a nurse is providing care post-procedure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen levels
- B. Encourage the client to eat
- C. Check for a gag reflex
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check for a gag reflex. This action helps assess the client's ability to protect their airway after sedation. Maintaining airway patency is crucial post-procedure. Monitoring oxygen levels is important but ensuring airway protection takes precedence. Encouraging the client to eat and administering IV fluids are essential aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation.
2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection and administer antibiotics
- B. Isolate the patient and provide a low-microbial diet
- C. Monitor vital signs and avoid unnecessary invasive procedures
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in social activities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.
3. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
- D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.
4. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?
- A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
- B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
- C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
- D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.
5. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?
- A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
- B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
- C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
- D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.
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