Nursing Elites

1. A client has undergone a bronchoscopy, and a nurse is providing care post-procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen levels
• B. Encourage the client to eat
• C. Check for a gag reflex
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check for a gag reflex. This action helps assess the client's ability to protect their airway after sedation. Maintaining airway patency is crucial post-procedure. Monitoring oxygen levels is important but ensuring airway protection takes precedence. Encouraging the client to eat and administering IV fluids are essential aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
• B. Avoid rubbing the eye
• C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
• D. Avoid lying on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.

3. What are the early signs of sepsis in a patient?

• A. Increased heart rate and fever
• B. Low blood pressure and confusion
• C. Elevated blood sugar and sweating
• D. Increased urine output and abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. These are early signs of sepsis and indicate a systemic infection. It is crucial to identify these signs promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Choice B is incorrect because low blood pressure and confusion are more indicative of severe sepsis or septic shock rather than early signs. Choice C is incorrect as elevated blood sugar and sweating are not typical early signs of sepsis. Choice D is also incorrect as increased urine output and abdominal pain are not early signs of sepsis.

4. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

5. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

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