Nursing Elites

1. Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?

• A. Dilate the bronchioles
• B. Reduce secondary infections
• C. Decrease postnasal drip
• D. Reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.

2. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

3. What advice should a school-age child with type 1 diabetes mellitus follow to prevent hypoglycemia during soccer practice?

• A. Drink a cup of orange juice before soccer practice
• B. Eat twice the amount normally eaten at lunchtime
• C. Take half the amount of prescribed insulin on practice days
• D. Take the prescribed insulin at noontime rather than in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Drinking orange juice before soccer practice is recommended to prevent hypoglycemia in children with type 1 diabetes. Orange juice contains fast-acting carbohydrates that can quickly raise blood sugar levels if they drop during physical activity. Eating twice the amount normally eaten at lunchtime can lead to hyperglycemia, which is high blood sugar, rather than preventing hypoglycemia. Adjusting insulin doses should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider. Taking insulin at noontime rather than in the morning does not directly address preventing hypoglycemia during afternoon soccer practice.

4. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

5. Fred is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would Nurse Nica expect to assess?

• A. Mild cough
• B. Slight fever
• C. Chest pain
• D. Bulging fontanel

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain is a common symptom seen in patients with pneumococcal pneumonia. It can result from inflammation of the pleura or irritation of the diaphragm due to the infection. While cough and fever are also common symptoms, chest pain is particularly significant in pneumonia cases as it can be a distressing symptom for the patient and may indicate complications or severity of the infection. Bulging fontanel, on the other hand, is more indicative of conditions affecting infants and is not typically associated with pneumococcal pneumonia in a 12-year-old boy.

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