ATI LPN
LPN Pediatrics
1. A 3-year-old female presents with respiratory distress. She is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. She has mild intercostal retractions and an oxygen saturation of 93%. The MOST effective way of delivering oxygen to her involves:
- A. gently restraining her and assisting with ventilations.
- B. ventilations with a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered device.
- C. a non-rebreathing mask with the flow rate set at 6 to 8 L/min.
- D. asking the mother to hold an oxygen mask near her face.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a pediatric patient with respiratory distress, a non-rebreathing mask with a flow rate set at 6 to 8 L/min is the most effective way to deliver oxygen. This method ensures a high concentration of oxygen is delivered to the child, aiding in improving oxygen saturation levels. In this scenario, the mother can assist in holding the mask to maintain comfort and cooperation in the child while ensuring proper oxygen delivery.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed
- B. Raise all four side rails for safety
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
- D. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed. This intervention allows for timely assistance and prevents falls. Raising all four side rails (Choice B) can lead to entrapment or agitate the client. Encouraging frequent ambulation with assistance (Choice C) may not be suitable for a client at high risk of falls. Using restraints (Choice D) should be avoided as they can increase agitation, risk of injury, and have ethical implications.
3. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). What should the nurse include in the patient’s education?
- A. SSRIs are fast-acting medications that can relieve anxiety immediately.
- B. It may take several weeks for the full therapeutic effects of SSRIs to be felt.
- C. SSRIs have a high potential for abuse and dependence.
- D. The patient should discontinue the medication once they feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients prescribed with SSRIs need to be educated that it may take several weeks for the full therapeutic effects of the medication to be experienced. This delay is important for patient understanding and compliance with the treatment plan. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs do not provide immediate relief and may take weeks to show significant improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as SSRIs are not known for having a high potential for abuse and dependence. Choice D is incorrect as patients should never discontinue medication abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider.
4. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.
5. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.
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