ATI LPN
Nutrition For PN Nursing ATI
1. Which enzyme is secreted by the salivary glands?
- A. Pepsin.
- B. Trypsin.
- C. Sucrase.
- D. Amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, amylase. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that initiates the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth. Pepsin (choice A) is produced in the stomach to digest proteins, trypsin (choice B) is produced in the pancreas to digest proteins, and sucrase (choice C) is produced in the small intestine to break down sucrose. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect in the context of an enzyme secreted by the salivary glands.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Check for an allergy to eggs
- C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
- D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
3. Which of the following is a benefit of providing Vitamin A supplements to children?
- A. Improves cognitive development
- B. Reduces the risk of severe measles
- C. Prevents iron deficiency anemia
- D. Enhances physical growth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct benefit of providing Vitamin A supplements to children is reducing the risk of severe measles. Vitamin A supplementation is known to lower the risk of severe measles and its associated complications, making it an important intervention in regions where measles is prevalent.
4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.
5. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST suggest acute respiratory distress in a 2-month-old infant?
- A. Heart rate of 130 beats/min
- B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
- C. Abdominal breathing
- D. Grunting respirations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grunting respirations are a key clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. Grunting is a protective mechanism where the infant exhales against a partially closed glottis to increase functional residual capacity and oxygenation. This is often seen in conditions such as respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, or other causes of respiratory compromise in infants. Monitoring respiratory patterns like grunting is crucial for early recognition and intervention in infants with respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to acute respiratory distress in infants. While an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate can be present in respiratory distress, grunting respirations are a more direct indicator of significant respiratory compromise in infants.
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