Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?

• A. Postprandial blood glucose
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
• C. Glucose tolerance test
• D. Fasting blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Edema
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Weight gain
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.

4. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Restrict protein intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Constipation
• C. Infusion reaction
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

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