Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe
• B. Massage the injection site to aid in absorption of the medication
• C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
• D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin into the lateral abdominal wall for subcutaneous absorption. This site is commonly used for administering this type of medication. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe is not necessary and may result in a reduced dose being administered. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can lead to bruising or irritation. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not indicated as discomfort at the injection site is usually minimal and self-limiting.

2. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

3. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

• A. Scaly and red
• B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
• C. Firm and rubbery
• D. Brown with a wart-like texture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
• B. The circumference of the client’s upper arm has increased by 10%
• C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
• D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The circumference of the upper arm above the insertion site of the PICC should be measured at the time of insertion and then again during assessments. An increase in circumference could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which could be life-threatening. Choice A is not a concern as changing the dressing 7 days ago is within the recommended timeframe. Choice C is not alarming as the catheter not being used for 8 hours does not necessarily indicate a problem. Choice D indicates proper catheter care by flushing it with sterile saline after medication use, so it does not require provider notification.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

Similar Questions