Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe
• B. Massage the injection site to aid in absorption of the medication
• C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
• D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin into the lateral abdominal wall for subcutaneous absorption. This site is commonly used for administering this type of medication. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe is not necessary and may result in a reduced dose being administered. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can lead to bruising or irritation. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not indicated as discomfort at the injection site is usually minimal and self-limiting.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the client's consent
• B. Verify the blood type and crossmatch
• C. Take baseline vital signs
• D. Prime the IV with normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Flumazenil
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Resume normal activities immediately
• B. Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence
• C. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
• D. Take medications only as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence.' After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for clients to be vigilant about any signs of chest pain as it could indicate a recurrent event. Prompt reporting of chest pain can lead to timely intervention, preventing further complications. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after a heart attack can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all physical activity for 6 months is excessive and can lead to deconditioning. Choice D is incorrect as medications prescribed after a myocardial infarction are usually meant to be taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Start intravenous antibiotics
• C. Perform a complete assessment
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.

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