an 82 year old woman with no past history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms she is on no medications at this time but needs so
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Nursing Elites

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1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Timolol eye drops are prescribed to reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma. By decreasing the pressure within the eye, timolol helps prevent damage to the optic nerve, which is crucial in managing glaucoma and preserving vision. Dilating or constricting the pupils or enhancing tear production are not the primary actions of timolol eye drops.

3. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory test is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) is crucial as it assesses the blood's ability to clot. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Maintaining a close watch on PT levels helps in timely intervention to prevent excessive bleeding episodes. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to the clotting function; serum creatinine (Choice B) and electrolytes (Choice D) are important, but in cirrhosis, monitoring PT takes precedence due to the increased bleeding risk.

4. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.

5. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.

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