ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?
- A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to decreased oral intake
- B. Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix
- C. Constipation related to decreased bowel motility and decreased fluid intake
- D. Chronic pain related to appendicitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.
2. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
- B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
- C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
- D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.
3. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
- D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.
4. When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?
- A. I must record any symptoms occurring with my activity.
- B. I am not looking forward to staying in bed for 24 hours.
- C. I really am dreading the frequent blood drawing.
- D. I know that I shouldn't get close to my microwave oven.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording symptoms that occur with activity is crucial when wearing a Holter monitor. This information helps in correlating symptoms with cardiac events, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of the client's condition. The client's understanding of this aspect demonstrates comprehension of the procedure and its purpose.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
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