Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?

• A. Normal gait
• B. Recent history of dizziness
• C. 20/20 vision
• D. Takes a multivitamin daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recent history of dizziness. A recent history of dizziness significantly increases the risk of falling, as dizziness can impair balance and coordination. Having a normal gait (choice A) and 20/20 vision (choice C) are not factors that directly increase the risk of falling. Taking a multivitamin daily (choice D) does not inherently contribute to an increased risk of falling unless it causes dizziness as a side effect, which is not specified in the question.

2. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?

• A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken at any time
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.

3. A nurse is providing education to a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and at risk for preterm labor. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

• A. Lower back pain
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Decreased fetal movement
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower back pain, especially if accompanied by uterine contractions or pressure, can be a sign of preterm labor. The client should report this immediately to prevent complications or early delivery. Shortness of breath (Choice B), decreased fetal movement (Choice C), and nausea and vomiting (Choice D) can be common during pregnancy but are not typically associated with preterm labor. While they should be monitored, they are not immediate signs of concern for preterm labor.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Flaring of the nostrils
• B. Normal respiratory rate
• C. Clear lung sounds
• D. Decreased work of breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

5. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

Similar Questions