Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Stimulate white blood cell production
• B. Increase platelet count
• C. Promote red blood cell production
• D. Enhance clotting factor production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.

2. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. What advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Limit intake of green leafy vegetables.
• B. Expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids.
• C. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• D. Take the medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient starting rifampin is to expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids. Rifampin can cause harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids, which may include urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. It is important for the patient to be aware of this side effect as it can stain clothing and contact lenses. Limiting the intake of green leafy vegetables is not necessary with rifampin. Avoiding exposure to sunlight is more commonly associated with other medications like tetracyclines, not rifampin. Taking rifampin with antacids is not recommended as antacids can reduce the absorption of rifampin, decreasing its effectiveness in treating tuberculosis.

3. A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Acute pancreatitis
• B. Mesenteric ischemia
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation, along with a soft abdomen and minimal tenderness on examination, suggest mesenteric ischemia due to embolic occlusion of the mesenteric arteries. This condition is characterized by a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the intestines, leading to abdominal pain and tenderness. Acute pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, accompanied by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis usually do not manifest with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain as described in the case.

4. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?

• A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
• B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
• C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
• D. High-pitched shrill cry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.

5. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
• B. Avoid alcohol completely.
• C. Expect to see immediate results.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point for a patient prescribed methotrexate is to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to a folate deficiency, which is why supplementing with folic acid is essential to reduce the risk of side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and liver problems.

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