Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Stimulate white blood cell production
• B. Increase platelet count
• C. Promote red blood cell production
• D. Enhance clotting factor production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.

2. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

3. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

4. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?

• A. Joint pain
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Loss of sensation
• D. Severe headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the voluntary muscles. Patients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience weakness in muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. This weakness typically worsens with activity and improves with rest. Joint pain, loss of sensation, and severe headaches are not typical symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (choice B) as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of myasthenia gravis.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?

• A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.
• B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.
• C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.
• D. Only take your long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing nausea and vomiting is to take insulin as prescribed but monitor blood glucose closely. It is essential to continue insulin therapy even if not eating normally to prevent complications from high blood sugar levels. Skipping insulin doses can lead to dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Reducing the insulin dose without proper guidance can also result in uncontrolled blood sugar. Taking only long-acting insulin may not provide adequate coverage for mealtime blood sugar elevation. Therefore, the best course of action is to take prescribed insulin doses while closely monitoring blood glucose levels.

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