ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023
1. What is the primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) when treating a patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
- A. To help the patient confront and process traumatic memories
- B. To help the patient change negative thought patterns
- C. To help the patient develop relaxation techniques
- D. To help the patient avoid triggers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) in treating patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is to help them confront and process traumatic memories. EMDR uses bilateral stimulation to facilitate the processing of distressing memories, leading to their desensitization and reprocessing, ultimately reducing PTSD symptoms.
2. While being treated in an inpatient facility, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Allowing the patient to eat alone to reduce stress
- B. Monitoring the patient's weight daily
- C. Encouraging the patient to exercise daily
- D. Providing the patient with a high-calorie diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the patient's weight daily is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with anorexia nervosa being treated in an inpatient facility. This approach helps healthcare providers track the patient's progress, assess nutritional status, and promptly identify any concerning changes or trends that may require intervention.
3. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?
- A. Aversion therapy
- B. Flooding
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Dialectical behavior therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.
4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Nausea
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.
5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.
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