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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which statement by a patient indicates an understanding of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
- A. CBT will help me understand and change my thought patterns.
- B. CBT focuses on resolving past trauma.
- C. CBT will help me avoid my problems.
- D. CBT involves taking medication to manage symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a type of psychotherapy that focuses on helping patients understand and change their thought patterns to improve their mental health. This therapy aims to identify and modify negative or harmful thoughts and behaviors. Option A correctly reflects this fundamental concept of CBT, emphasizing the role of thought patterns in mental health improvement. Choices B and C are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on resolving past trauma or avoiding problems; instead, it concentrates on changing cognitive patterns. Choice D is also inaccurate as CBT does not involve medication management but rather focuses on cognitive and behavioral interventions.
2. A patient with bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on the importance of medication adherence. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel manic symptoms.
- B. I understand that I need to take my medication regularly, even if I feel well.
- C. I will stop taking my medication if I experience side effects.
- D. I will take my medication whenever I remember.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking medication regularly, even when feeling well, is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms alone. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication due to side effects should be discussed with a healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because relying on memory may lead to missed doses, impacting treatment effectiveness.
3. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?
- A. Aversion therapy
- B. Flooding
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Dialectical behavior therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.
4. Which symptom is most commonly associated with social anxiety disorder?
- A. Fear of speaking in public
- B. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- C. Flashbacks of traumatic events
- D. Persistent low mood
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fear of speaking in public is a hallmark symptom of social anxiety disorder. Individuals with social anxiety disorder often experience intense fear or anxiety about social situations where they may be scrutinized or judged by others, such as speaking in public. This fear can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, making it a key feature in diagnosing social anxiety disorder. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts, flashbacks of traumatic events, and persistent low mood are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and depression, respectively. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of social anxiety disorder.
5. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing a severe manic episode?
- A. Providing a structured and low-stimulation environment
- B. Encouraging the patient to engage in group activities
- C. Providing detailed information about the patient's condition
- D. Allowing the patient to have unsupervised time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a severe manic episode, it is crucial to provide a structured and low-stimulation environment to help manage the symptoms effectively. This environment aims to reduce stimuli that can exacerbate manic behavior and provide a sense of predictability and safety for the individual. Group activities, detailed information provision, or unsupervised time may not be suitable during a severe manic episode as they can potentially worsen the condition or pose safety risks.
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