Nursing Elites

1. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.

2. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

3. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. To reduce pain.
• B. To decrease anxiety.
• C. To reduce cardiac workload.
• D. To increase respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

4. What action should the nurse take to prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Secure the tracheostomy ties firmly.
• B. Change the tracheostomy tube daily.
• C. Use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff.
• D. Clean the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff. This method helps avoid excessive pressure on the tracheal tissue, thereby reducing the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tracheostomy ties too tightly can cause pressure and tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not necessary unless there is a specific clinical indication. Choice D is incorrect as cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide can irritate the skin and mucous membranes, potentially leading to damage.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased blood pressure.
• C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

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