ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.
2. A patient with hyperthyroidism is to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
- A. Avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week.
- B. Take iodine supplement daily.
- C. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- D. Use disposable utensils for all meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week. This precaution is essential to prevent radiation exposure to vulnerable populations. Pregnant women and small children are more sensitive to radiation, making it crucial for patients undergoing radioactive iodine therapy to avoid close contact with them for a specified period. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking iodine supplements daily is not necessary for patients receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for radioactive iodine therapy. Using disposable utensils for all meals is not a specific precaution related to radioactive iodine therapy.
3. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.
4. A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
- B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
- C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
- D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate signs of shock and hypovolemia, making fluid resuscitation the priority to address these conditions. Improving intravascular volume is crucial to stabilize the client's blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output, ultimately improving organ perfusion and addressing the underlying issue of hypovolemia.
5. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access