Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Esophageal cancer
• B. Achalasia
• C. Peptic stricture
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

3. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

4. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?

• A. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes
• B. Encouraging a high-protein diet
• C. Maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids
• D. Providing a low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.

5. A 50-year-old man presents with fatigue, arthralgia, and darkening of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Wilson's disease
• B. Hemochromatosis
• C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
• D. Autoimmune hepatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, arthralgia, and skin darkening, along with elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels, are characteristic of hemochromatosis, a condition characterized by iron overload. In hemochromatosis, excess iron is deposited in various organs, including the liver, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, joint pain, and skin pigmentation changes. The elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels seen in this patient further support the diagnosis of hemochromatosis.

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