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ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.
2. When teaching a client postoperative breathing techniques with an incentive spirometer (IS), what should the nurse encourage the client to do to maintain sustained maximal inspiration?
- A. Exhale forcefully into the tubing for 3 to 5 seconds.
- B. Inspire deeply and slowly over 3 to 5 seconds.
- C. Breathe into the spirometer using normal breath volumes.
- D. Perform IS breathing exercises every 6 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To maintain sustained maximal inspiration when using an incentive spirometer, the client should be encouraged to inspire deeply and slowly over 3 to 5 seconds. This technique aids in achieving the goal of sustained maximal inspiration, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.
3. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.
4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.
5. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Inflammatory bowel disease
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Lactose intolerance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.
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