ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.
2. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Use this medication for acute asthma attacks.
- B. Use this medication before using your albuterol inhaler.
- C. Use this medication twice daily for long-term control.
- D. Use this medication as needed for wheezing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
- B. I need to limit my salt intake
- C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
- D. I should eat a balanced diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with liver cirrhosis should avoid acetaminophen because it can cause further liver damage. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and in individuals with liver disease, it can lead to liver toxicity. Therefore, clients with liver cirrhosis should use alternative pain medications that do not affect the liver, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids as prescribed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements for managing liver cirrhosis. Avoiding alcohol helps prevent further liver damage, limiting salt intake helps manage fluid retention and complications like ascites, and eating a balanced diet supports overall health and helps prevent malnutrition.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
- A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
- B. Ascending weakness.
- C. New onset of confusion.
- D. Decreased vital capacity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.
5. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.
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