Nursing Elites

1. When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?

• A. Instruct about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
• B. Provide detailed information about dietary glucose control.
• C. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
• D. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when time is limited is to focus on essential teaching. In this scenario, the patient should be educated on how to self-monitor glucose levels and administer medications to control glucose levels. This empowers the patient with immediate skills for managing their condition. Instructing about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease (choice A) is important but not as urgent as teaching self-monitoring and medication administration. Providing detailed information about dietary glucose control (choice B) can be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring the patient can monitor and manage their glucose levels. Teaching about the effects of exercise (choice D) is relevant but not as critical as immediate self-monitoring and medication administration education.

2. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of spicy foods.
• B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating.
• C. Consume a high-fat diet.
• D. Drink caffeinated beverages with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
• C. Decreased heart rate.
• D. Improved liver function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.

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