a patient who was admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after ad
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when time is limited is to focus on essential teaching. In this scenario, the patient should be educated on how to self-monitor glucose levels and administer medications to control glucose levels. This empowers the patient with immediate skills for managing their condition. Instructing about the increased risk of cardiovascular disease (choice A) is important but not as urgent as teaching self-monitoring and medication administration. Providing detailed information about dietary glucose control (choice B) can be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring the patient can monitor and manage their glucose levels. Teaching about the effects of exercise (choice D) is relevant but not as critical as immediate self-monitoring and medication administration education.

2. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

3. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.

4. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

5. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.

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