ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?
- A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
- B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
- C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
- D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.
2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fruity breath odor.
- B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
- C. Deep, rapid respirations.
- D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.
3. A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?
- A. Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
- B. 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
- C. Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
- D. 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Milky or cloudy drainage can indicate infection or lymphatic leakage, which requires immediate attention. This finding may suggest a serious complication post neck dissection, warranting prompt notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
4. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
- A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
- B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
- C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
- D. Mini-Mental State Examination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.
5. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Increased urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.
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