Nursing Elites

1. A client's healthcare provider has ordered a 'liver panel' in response to the client's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
• C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 'liver panel' is a group of blood tests used to evaluate liver function. The components typically include ALT, GGT, and AST. While C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and not part of a standard liver panel, it may be ordered for other diagnostic purposes.

2. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

3. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

4. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking metformin (Glucophage) is with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves the medication's absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to more adverse effects, so it is essential to take it with food. Option A ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. Option C ('Take the medication on an empty stomach') is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal issues. Option D ('Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar') is incorrect because metformin is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed for high blood sugar.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?

• A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
• D. Weight loss.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excess production of corticosteroids leads to redistribution of fat, particularly in the face (moon face) and between the shoulders (buffalo hump). Hyperpigmentation of the skin is actually associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome (choice A). Hypotension is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more commonly seen due to the effects of excess cortisol (choice B). Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome due to the metabolic disturbances caused by excess cortisol (choice D).

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