Nursing Elites

1. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?

• A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
• B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
• C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds since the last dialysis session.
• C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl.
• D. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
• C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is crucial for clients with type 2 diabetes who are taking metformin. This helps assess the effectiveness of the medication in managing blood sugar levels and allows for timely adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. By monitoring blood glucose levels, the client and healthcare team can work together to achieve optimal diabetes control and prevent complications associated with uncontrolled blood sugar levels.

4. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.

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