Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a mental health facility observes a client who has bipolar disorder walk over to a table occupied by other clients and knock their game off the table. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Apologize to the others for your behavior.
• B. I am disappointed that you continue to act out when you are angry.
• C. Come outside with me for a walk.
• D. If you don't calm down, you will have to go into seclusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Offering to go for a walk with the client helps redirect their energy in a non-confrontational way, avoiding escalation of aggressive behavior while promoting de-escalation.

2. A charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. What assignment should the charge nurse give to an LPN?

• A. A client who requires complex medication management
• B. A client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
• C. A client needing assessment of a new diagnosis
• D. A client requiring a nursing care plan update

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assignment for an LPN would be a client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). This choice is appropriate because it involves monitoring the client's condition, providing basic care, and assisting with activities of daily living, which align with the scope of practice for LPNs. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are more complex and require a higher level of nursing education and training, making them less suitable for an LPN.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy levels
• B. Pale skin
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

4. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

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