Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a mental health facility observes a client who has bipolar disorder walk over to a table occupied by other clients and knock their game off the table. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Apologize to the others for your behavior.
• B. I am disappointed that you continue to act out when you are angry.
• C. Come outside with me for a walk.
• D. If you don't calm down, you will have to go into seclusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Offering to go for a walk with the client helps redirect their energy in a non-confrontational way, avoiding escalation of aggressive behavior while promoting de-escalation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that leads to infections. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, a potentially life-threatening complication, and must be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Constipation) is a common side effect of clozapine but is not as urgent as fever. Blurred vision (Choice B) and dry mouth (Choice D) are side effects of clozapine but are not indicative of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis.

4. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Sticky mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

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