a nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management which of the following
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hypnosis during labor helps the client gain increased control over her perception of pain, allowing for better pain management during contractions. Choice A is incorrect because hypnosis and biofeedback are distinct techniques. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic touch and hypnosis are different modalities. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis does not simply provide instruction to minimize pain, but rather helps the individual control their perception of pain.

2. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

4. A 55-year-old client has levothyroxine ordered. Which of the below past medical history concerns may contraindicate with her medication management of hypothyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with a history of osteoporosis should be carefully monitored when prescribed levothyroxine. Chronic overtreatment can cause increased bone loss, which raises the risk of fractures, especially in older adults. Thyroid hormone levels should be regularly monitored to avoid this complication. Scleroderma (choice B), asthma (choice C), and peripheral vascular disease (choice D) are not known to contraindicate the use of levothyroxine for hypothyroidism.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

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