a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to leave one side rail up on the client's bed. This action can help prevent falls while allowing the client to get up safely when needed, reducing the risk of injury from wandering. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not appropriate as it can lead to increased agitation and distress. Requesting restraints (Choice B) should be avoided as it can increase the risk of injuries and is not recommended for clients with Alzheimer's. Dimming the lighting (Choice C) may increase confusion and disorientation in clients with Alzheimer's disease.

5. A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn’s actions as uncooperative indicates a negative interaction with the newborn and suggests impaired bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of impaired bonding. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive way to bond with the baby. Asking the father to change the diaper shows involvement of both parents in caring for the newborn, which is beneficial for bonding. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so the mother can rest is a normal request and does not necessarily indicate impaired bonding.

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