a nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a uti what prescription should the nurse verify with a provider
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which of the following is an expected finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid storm, which is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, hypertension is an expected finding. Other common manifestations include tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. Hypothermia (choice A) is not expected in a thyroid storm as the body temperature is usually elevated due to increased metabolic rate. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typical in a thyroid storm; instead, tachycardia is more common. Lethargy (choice D) is not a typical finding in a thyroid storm, as clients are usually agitated due to excess thyroid hormone levels.

5. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

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