Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
• C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
• D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. What is the most important intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Monitor airway patency
• C. Provide bronchodilators
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient experiencing respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy helps to improve oxygen levels in the blood, supporting vital organ functions. While monitoring airway patency is important, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring the patient receives an adequate oxygen supply. Providing bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but the immediate priority in distress is to address oxygenation. Calling for assistance is essential, but the immediate intervention to support the patient's respiratory function is administering oxygen.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

4. What is the priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Ensure tube patency and observe for air leaks
• B. Maintain sterile technique during dressing changes
• C. Monitor drainage and record output
• D. Observe for signs of infection and monitor for subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to ensure tube patency and observe for air leaks. This is essential to prevent complications such as pneumothorax and ensure the patient's lung function. While maintaining sterile technique during dressing changes, monitoring drainage, recording output, and observing for signs of infection and subcutaneous emphysema are also important, ensuring tube patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's respiratory status and overall safety.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

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