ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
- C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
- B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
- C. Bruising to the face.
- D. Absent gag reflex.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.
4. What is the first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection?
- A. Change the dressing every 12 hours
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
- C. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
- D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the specific infecting organism and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changing the dressing, cleansing the wound, or applying a wet-to-dry dressing should only be done after obtaining the culture results and starting appropriate antibiotic treatment.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
- A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
- B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
- C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence following an acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain confidence and control over their self-care activities without feeling overwhelmed. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the immediate solution to promote independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) to perform tasks for the client does not encourage independence. Asking if a family member is available for assistance (Choice D) does not directly promote the client's independence.
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