Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
• C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
• D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

3. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Maintain the drainage below the level of the chest
• C. Elevate the chest tube above chest level
• D. Avoid frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system is to maintain the drainage below the level of the chest. This position allows proper drainage of fluids and helps prevent complications such as backflow of blood or fluids into the chest cavity. Clamping the chest tube (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Elevating the chest tube above chest level (Choice C) is also incorrect because it can impede proper drainage. Avoiding frequent dressing changes (Choice D) is important to prevent introducing infection, but it is not directly related to the position of the drainage system.

4. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?

• A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
• B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
• C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
• D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.

5. What is the primary action the nurse should take first for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL?

• A. Increase the protein intake in the diet
• B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
• C. Increase the IV fluid infusion rate
• D. Administer a protein supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates hypoalbuminemia, which can impair wound healing. Consulting with a dietitian to optimize the client's protein intake is crucial in promoting wound healing for pressure ulcers. Increasing the protein intake in the diet (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance from a dietitian. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the protein deficiency. Administering a protein supplement (Choice D) should be guided by a healthcare professional's recommendation after consulting with a dietitian.

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