a nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints which of the following guidelines should the nurse include
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. What is the initial step a nurse should take when irrigating a wound?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when irrigating a wound is to cleanse the wound from the center outward. This method helps remove debris and pathogens effectively, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves should be done before starting the wound irrigation but is not the first action in the process. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not the initial step in wound irrigation. Choice D is also incorrect as using a syringe to irrigate the wound comes after cleansing the wound.

3. A client has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.

4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

5. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

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