Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
• C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
• D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. A client is being cared for by a nurse with dehydration. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea
• B. Encourage the client to drink oral rehydration solutions
• C. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels. When caring for a client with dehydration, it is crucial to assess and monitor their fluid and electrolyte status to guide appropriate interventions. Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink oral rehydration solutions is beneficial but may not be the immediate priority if the client is severely dehydrated. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary based on the assessment of fluid and electrolyte levels, making monitoring these levels the priority intervention.

3. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. High-pitched cry
• D. Bulging posterior fontanelle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use abdominal breathing during physical activity
• B. Inhale quickly and deeply through the nose
• C. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
• D. Breathe quickly and deeply during exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.

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