a nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints which of the following guidelines should the nurse include
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. A nurse is delegating the collection of a sputum specimen to an assistive personnel (AP). At which of the following times should the nurse instruct the AP to collect the specimen?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'As soon as the client awakens in the morning.' Sputum specimens should be collected early in the morning to obtain a concentrated sample. This timing ensures that the specimen is less diluted, providing a more accurate analysis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for collecting a sputum specimen, which is in the morning.

3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

4. A nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.

5. A client diagnosed with gout is receiving dietary instruction from a nurse. What dietary advice should be provided?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout flare-ups. Fresh fruits, uncooked vegetables, dairy products, and leafy greens are generally not associated with exacerbating gout symptoms and do not need to be significantly restricted in the diet of someone with gout.

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